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King James Onlyism Pt. 4

This will be the last post of this review of pastor Hampton’s youtube video called “King James Bible”. If you haven’t read the previous three posts in this series you should. You can find them by clicking the links here——-> “King James Onlyism Pt.1“, “King James Onlyism Pt. 2“, and “King James Onlyism Pt.3

We ended part 3 at about the 8:15 mark so you can start the video there.

Pastor Hampton’s final proof text for using the King James alone comes from Luke 2:33 which says:

And Joseph and his mother marvelled at those things which were spoken of him.” -KJV

Pastor Hampton is correct that Joseph isn’t Jesus’ earthly father. But then he says an amazing statement. He says, “I believe that the father of the Lord Jesus Christ is God Almighty. But in most versions of the Bible they don’t think so.” He is accusing the modern translations of denying the virgin birth and Christ’s deity by suggesting that “they don’t think” God Almighty is the father of Jesus. Let’s see if he is on to something…

The ESV says this in Luke 2:33:

And his father and his mother marveled at what was said about him.

Did you catch that? The modern translations are trying to deny the virgin birth by making Joseph the father of Jesus! And if they aren’t dong it to deny the virgin birth then surely people will be confused…right?

This an easy argument to respond to. Why you ask? Great question! It’s easy to answer because I don’t need to dive into manuscripts or look at the internal evidence. I can prove that pastor Hampton and KJ onlyists are inconsistent by quoting other passages in the KJV. If only pastor Hampton would have kept reading he would have run into Luke 2:41 which says:

 Now his (Jesus) parents went to Jerusalem every year at the feast of the passover.” -KJV

Wait, the KJV refers to Joseph and Mary as Jesus’ parents? Of course, this can be explained away by saying that Joseph only raised Jesus but he was not the father of Jesus. This could cause confusion couldn’t it? If the King James translators were so careful just verses before then why would they say “parents” here?

That’s not all. If pastor Hampton would have read even further he would have seen these words coming from the mouth of Mary in Luke 2:48 which says:

And when they saw him, they were amazed: and his mother said unto him, Son, why hast thou thus dealt with us? behold, thy father and I have sought thee sorrowing.”

OK, so now you know why this was the easiest text to refute. It is simply absurd for the KJ onlyist to bring up Luke 2:33 and accuse the modern translations of making Joseph the father of Jesus when their own translation does the same. Not only that, it says Joseph is the father of Jesus in the SAME chapter as his proof text.

This specific argument shows the fatal flaw of KJ onlyism…they are inconsistent.

Allow me to leave you with the words of the King James translators themselves:

“Now to the latter we answer; that we do not deny, nay we affirm and avow, that the very meanest translation of the Bible in English, set forth by men of our profession, (for we have seen none of theirs of the whole Bible as yet) containeth the word of God, nay, is the word of God.” -Preface “The Translators to the Reader”

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About Travis Berry

I am a blatantly honest person who loves to think, read, discuss, and write about God and theology. I have a bachelor's degree in Youth Ministry from Crown College. I work at a church in Houston, TX as a Youth Director and love every minute of it! I am married to a wonderful woman named Becky and we have one amazing child! I have a love for God's Word, and a fervor to live it out in the fullest, and I pray this blog reflects that. Thanks for checking out AnotherChristianBlog!.

Posted on November 15, 2011, in Christianity, Theology and tagged , , , , , , , , , , . Bookmark the permalink. 4 Comments.

  1. Good job of explaining things. God Bless, SR

  2. How can we be sure any current translation of the Bible is accurate since we do not have the original manuscripts? Can’t ideas/words get lost in transmission from one source to another?

  3. Hey FB,

    First, thanks for reading my stuff.

    To answer your question there are have been some great works in this subject but I will give you just a bit of info. You are correct. We do not have the original manuscripts of the NT. However, this does not mean that we do not have an accurate translation of what the originals contained.

    When the NT authors wrote their letters Christians were quick to copy them and spread them around. What does this mean? It means that we have a lot of small variation between manuscripts. Remember, Christians were a persecuted minority when these texts were being written. The copiers were not professionals so there is variation. However, there is a huge positive.

    That positive is that there are a HUGE amount of manuscripts that we do have. So, if someone, accidentally or purposefully, edited out some of what the originals contained we would be able to recognize it the differences. So, we do have variation in the manuscripts but that does not mean we do not have what the originals contained.

    Hope that helps,

    Travis

  1. Pingback: The Absurdity of King James Onlyism «

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